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Practice / NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Fundamentals Practice Questions

1,040 Fundamentals questions written for the NCLEX-RN, each with a rationale explaining why the correct answer is correct and why the others are not. Free, no account required. 10 examples are shown below.

Practice all 1,040 questions →

Topics covered

  • Infection Control (111)
  • Vital Signs & Assessment (96)
  • Fall Prevention & Safety (84)
  • Pressure Injury Prevention (80)
  • Oxygen Therapy (77)
  • Sleep & Rest (59)
  • Pain Management & Comfort (59)
  • Vital Signs & Patient Positioning (58)
  • Hygiene & Personal Care (57)
  • Patient Hygiene (56)
  • Venipuncture & IV Therapy (40)
  • Documentation & Communication (40)
  • Hygiene & Body Mechanics (39)
  • Sterile Technique (39)
  • Basic Care & Comfort (39)
  • Nutrition & Feeding (36)
  • Elimination & Catheter Care (20)
  • Comfort Measures (18)
  • Wound Care & Pressure Injuries (10)
  • Medication Administration & Rights (10)
  • Nutrition & Elimination (8)
  • Nasogastric Tube (1)
  • Restraints (1)
  • Sepsis (1)
  • Blood Transfusion Reaction (1)

Example questions with rationales

Answers are shown so you can read these as worked examples. To answer them yourself and track what you get wrong, start a practice set.

  1. 1Sepsis

    Based on the assessment findings, what is the most likely primary problem?

    • Septic shock secondary to postoperative infection — correct
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Acute myocardial infarction
    • Dehiscence of surgical incision
    Rationale

    The combination of fever, tachycardia, hypotension, and altered mental status 2 days post-op strongly suggests septic shock from a postoperative infection source.

  2. 2Pain Management & Comfort

    The nurse is preparing to apply a heating pad to a patient's lower back. Which intervention is most important for patient safety?

    • Apply the heating pad directly to the skin for maximum heat transfer
    • Set the heating pad to the highest setting for faster relief
    • Place a layer of towel between the heating pad and skin and assess skin frequently — correct
    • Apply the heating pad for 45-60 minutes for best results
    Rationale

    Heat therapy should be applied with a protective barrier (towel) between the heat source and skin to prevent burns. The temperature should be warm, not hot, and applications should be limited to 20-30 minutes. The nurse should assess the skin frequently for redness, blisters, or discomfort. Prolonged or direct heat application can cause thermal injury.

  3. 3Venipuncture & IV Therapy

    A pediatric nurse is preparing to insert an IV in a 4-year-old child. Which approach is most appropriate for this developmental age group?

    • Allow the child to handle the equipment before the procedure — correct
    • Explain the procedure in detail using medical terminology
    • Restrain the child immediately without explanation
    • Have the parent leave the room to minimize distraction
    Rationale

    According to developmental principles, a 4-year-old is in the preschool stage and benefits from familiarization with equipment through play. Allowing the child to handle items like tape or a syringe reduces fear. Medical terminology confuses children, restraint increases distress, and parental presence is comforting.

  4. 4Patient Hygiene

    The nurse is providing hygiene care to a patient receiving chemotherapy with neutropenia. Which intervention is MOST appropriate?

    • Use regular bath products available on the unit
    • Perform meticulous hand hygiene and use sterile technique for all care — correct
    • Allow the patient to share bathroom facilities with other patients
    • Use a hard loofah for better exfoliation
    Rationale

    The correct answer is performing meticulous hand hygiene and using clean technique for all care. Neutropenic patients have severely decreased immune function and are at extremely high risk for infection. Meticulous hand hygiene is critical. Use single-use or patient-specific products to minimize contamination risk. Avoid sharing facilities or using abrasive tools.

  5. 5Fall Prevention & Safety

    A 2-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate to prevent falls in this age group?

    • Keep the side rails down to prevent climbing over them
    • Use a crib with raised side rails and ensure they are locked in the up position — correct
    • Allow the child to walk independently in the room
    • Restrain the child in the bed with a safety belt
    Rationale

    For pediatric patients, especially toddlers, the most appropriate fall prevention measure is to use a crib with raised side rails that are locked in the up position. Toddlers are curious and may attempt to climb out of bed, so keeping the side rails up prevents falls. Keeping side rails down (option a) increases fall risk. Toddlers should not walk independently in an unfamiliar environment without supervision (option c). Restraints (option d) are not appropriate for fall prevention in children and require specific orders and monitoring.

  6. 6Elimination & Catheter Care

    The nurse is inserting an indwelling urinary catheter for a female patient. The nurse inserts the catheter 5 cm and obtains only a small amount of urine, but the patient reports discomfort. What should the nurse do next?

    • Remove the catheter and attempt again
    • Advance the catheter further until urine flows freely — correct
    • Inflate the balloon with the small amount of urine obtained
    • Ask the patient to bear down and reattempt insertion
    Rationale

    The catheter should be advanced further until urine flows freely before inflating the balloon. In female patients, the urethra is approximately 3-5 cm, but the catheter may need to be advanced further to ensure it is fully in the bladder. Discomfort may indicate the catheter is in the urethra but not the bladder.

  7. 7Documentation & Communication

    The nurse is preparing to transfer a patient to another unit. Which information should be included in the handoff communication?

    • Only the patient's current diagnosis and room number
    • The patient's name, diagnosis, current condition, recent changes, and pending tests — correct
    • Just the medication list and allergy information
    • A brief summary of the patient's social history and hobbies
    Rationale

    The answer: B (the patient's name, diagnosis, current condition, recent changes, and pending tests) Think of it this way: handing off a client to another unit is like passing a baton in a relay race — the next runner (the receiving nurse) needs enough information to keep going smoothly without dropping anything, including where things currently stand and what's still "in progress." Why B is right: a complete handoff includes the client's identity, diagnosis, current condition, any recent changes, and pending tests or treatments — this gives the receiving team a full, current picture so they can pick up care without gaps or surprises. Why the others are wrong: - A: diagnosis and room number alone leave out critical information about the client's CURRENT condition, recent changes, and anything still pending — far too little for safe continuity of care. - C: medication and allergy information is important and should be INCLUDED, but limiting the handoff to JUST this leaves out the broader clinical picture (current condition, recent changes, pending items). - D: social history and hobbies, while sometimes helpful for building rapport, aren't the PRIORITY information for a clinical handoff — they don't help the receiving nurse understand the client's current medical status or care needs. Remember: a complete handoff = who the client is, their diagnosis, current condition, recent changes, and anything still pending — often organized using a structured format like SBAR. Technical note: structured handoff tools (like SBAR or I-PASS) are widely promoted by patient safety organizations because unstructured handoffs are a common source of medical errors — missing or unclear information during a handoff can lead to delayed treatments, repeated tests, or missed changes in a client's condition.

  8. 8Infection Control

    Which patient is at highest risk for developing a healthcare-associated infection (HAI)?

    • A 25-year-old healthy patient admitted for appendectomy
    • A 45-year-old patient with well-controlled diabetes scheduled for knee replacement
    • A 70-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and an indwelling urinary catheter — correct
    • A 55-year-old patient with hypertension admitted for observation
    Rationale

    The answer: C (A 70-year-old patient with COPD and an indwelling urinary catheter) Think of it this way: think of healthcare-associated infection (HAI) risk as adding up points — each risk factor stacks on top of the others. This patient has three: older age (the immune system isn't as strong), chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or COPD (the lungs are already compromised), and an indwelling urinary catheter (a tube that gives bacteria a direct path into the bladder). Why C is right: this patient has the most risk factors stacked together — advanced age, a chronic disease that weakens host defenses, and an invasive device that bypasses the body's normal barriers, making a urinary tract infection especially likely. Why the others are wrong: - A: A healthy 25-year-old having a routine appendectomy has no major underlying risk factors and no invasive long-term devices. - B: A 45-year-old with well-controlled diabetes having a planned knee replacement has one risk factor (diabetes), but it's well-controlled, and there's no indwelling device mentioned. - D: A 55-year-old with hypertension admitted for observation has a common chronic condition but no invasive devices and no described immune compromise. Remember: more risk factors stacked together (age + chronic illness + invasive device) = higher HAI risk. Technical note: indwelling urinary catheters are one of the leading causes of HAIs (catheter-associated urinary tract infections, or CAUTIs); risk increases with each day the catheter remains in place, so catheters should be removed as soon as they're no longer clinically necessary.

  9. 9Patient Hygiene

    Select all interventions that help maintain skin integrity in a bedridden patient:

    • Reposition the patient every 2 hours — correct
    • Use mild soap and warm water for bathing — correct
    • Massage bony prominences vigorously each shift
    • Keep skin clean and dry, using moisture barriers as needed — correct
    Rationale

    The answer: A, B, and D - reposition the patient every 2 hours, use mild soap and warm water for bathing, and keep skin clean and dry using moisture barriers as needed - all are correct/appropriate. Think of it this way: Skin breaks down from a combination of pressure, friction, and moisture - so protecting skin means relieving pressure regularly, cleaning gently, and managing moisture. Why these are right: - A: Repositioning every 2 hours relieves sustained pressure on any one area, giving blood flow a chance to return to compressed tissue. - B: Mild soap and warm water clean the skin without stripping its natural protective oils or irritating it with harsh chemicals or extreme temperatures. - D: Keeping skin clean and dry, with moisture barrier products (creams that protect skin from urine, stool, or excess moisture) as needed, prevents maceration (softening and breakdown from prolonged wetness). Why the other is wrong: - C: Vigorous massage of bony prominences (areas where bone is close to the skin, such as the sacrum, hips, or heels) is contraindicated - it can damage fragile tissue and blood vessels under the skin, potentially worsening the risk of pressure injury rather than preventing it. Remember: Reposition, clean gently, keep dry - but never massage the bony spots. Technical note: Pressure injuries develop from a combination of pressure, shear (sliding forces between skin and underlying tissue), friction, and moisture; a thorough skin-integrity program addresses all of these factors along with nutritional support, since adequate protein and hydration are needed for skin to maintain its strength and heal.

  10. 10Vital Signs & Assessment

    A nurse is preparing to assess vital signs for an adult patient. Which of the following represents the normal range for adult resting respiratory rate?

    • 8-12 breaths per minute
    • 12-20 breaths per minute — correct
    • 20-28 breaths per minute
    • 28-36 breaths per minute
    Rationale

    The answer: B (12-20 breaths per minute) Think of it this way: think of normal breathing as a steady, relaxed rhythm — not racing, not barely moving. For a resting adult, that steady rhythm falls between 12 and 20 breaths every minute. Why B is right: 12-20 breaths per minute is the accepted normal range for an adult at rest. This is one of the baseline numbers the nurse compares every patient against. Why the others are wrong: - A: 8-12 breaths per minute is too slow — a rate this low (bradypnea, "brady" = slow, "-pnea" = breathing) could signal sedation, opioid overdose, or a neurological problem. - C: 20-28 breaths per minute is faster than normal (tachypnea, "tachy" = fast) and suggests the body is compensating for something, such as anxiety, pain, fever, or low oxygen. - D: 28-36 breaths per minute is significantly elevated and would prompt an urgent assessment for respiratory distress. Remember: 12-20 is normal — below is bradypnea, above is tachypnea. Technical note: respiratory rate should be assessed for one full minute when possible, especially if the rhythm is irregular, since brief counts can miss pauses or irregular patterns.

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