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Practice / NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Med-Surg: Cardiac Practice Questions

716 Med-Surg: Cardiac questions written for the NCLEX-RN, each with a rationale explaining why the correct answer is correct and why the others are not. Free, no account required. 10 examples are shown below.

Practice all 716 questions →

Topics covered

  • Cardiomyopathy (80)
  • Heart Failure (64)
  • Acute MI & ACS (61)
  • Venous Thromboembolism (59)
  • Pacemakers & Defibrillators (57)
  • Coronary Artery Disease (54)
  • Pericarditis & Endocarditis (50)
  • CABG & Cardiac Surgery (49)
  • Valvular Heart Disease (40)
  • Cardiac Catheterization (40)
  • Arrhythmias & ECG (38)
  • Hypertension (37)
  • Peripheral Vascular Disease (34)
  • Shock & Hemodynamic Monitoring (20)
  • Cardiac Assessment & Auscultation (18)
  • Cardiac: MI, Heart Failure, Dysrhythmias (6)
  • Hyperkalemia (1)
  • Blood Transfusion (1)
  • DVT Prevention (1)
  • Hypertensive Crisis (1)
  • Atrial Fibrillation (1)
  • Cardiogenic Shock (1)
  • Pulmonary Embolism (1)
  • Post-Cardiac Surgery (1)
  • Deep Vein Thrombosis (1)

Example questions with rationales

Answers are shown so you can read these as worked examples. To answer them yourself and track what you get wrong, start a practice set.

  1. 1Heart Failure

    The nurse recognizes that this patient has acute decompensated heart failure. What is the MOST LIKELY primary precipitating factor for this exacerbation?

    • Medication noncompliance - patient ran out of furosemide and has not been taking diuretics for 4 days — correct
    • Dietary noncompliance - patient admits to eating canned soups high in sodium
    • New-onset atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response
    • Acute myocardial infarction precipitating cardiogenic shock
    Rationale

    The most likely precipitating factor is medication noncompliance - the patient ran out of furosemide and has not been taking diuretics for 4 days. Furosemide is essential for removing excess fluid in heart failure patients. Without it, fluid accumulates rapidly, causing the classic presentation of weight gain, dyspnea, and orthopnea seen within days. The daughter also reports the patient has been forgetful and missing doses occasionally. While dietary sodium intake can contribute, the temporal relationship with stopping furosemide makes this the primary trigger. There is no evidence of new atrial fibrillation (rate is only slightly elevated at 102, and he has chronic AF), and no evidence of acute MI (troponin only slightly elevated, no chest pain, and ECG would show changes).

  2. 2Acute MI & ACS

    A patient with acute coronary syndrome is receiving continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin. The nurse monitors the therapeutic effect by checking the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). What is the target therapeutic range for aPTT in this patient?

    • 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value — correct
    • 0.5 to 1.0 times the control value
    • Equal to the control value
    • 3 to 4 times the control value
    Rationale

    The therapeutic range for unfractionated heparin is an aPTT 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value (approximately 50-70 seconds depending on the lab). This range provides therapeutic anticoagulation while minimizing bleeding risk. aPTT is monitored 6 hours after starting or changing the infusion rate.

  3. 3Heart Failure

    During auscultation of a client with heart failure, the nurse hears an S3 heart sound. Which statement best describes the significance of this finding?

    • Indicates diastolic dysfunction
    • Suggests volume overload and decreased ventricular compliance — correct
    • Is a normal finding in healthy adults over age 40
    • Indicates good ventricular function
    Rationale

    An S3 heart sound, also called a ventricular gallop, occurs during early diastole when blood rushes rapidly into a non-compliant or overloaded ventricle. It indicates decreased ventricular compliance and volume overload, commonly seen in heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. While it can be normal in children and young adults, in adults with cardiac history it signifies pathology.

  4. 4Valvular Heart Disease

    The nurse is assessing a client with suspected infective endocarditis affecting the mitral valve. Which diagnostic finding is most definitive for this diagnosis?

    • Positive blood cultures
    • Vegetation seen on echocardiogram — correct
    • Elevated troponin levels
    • New regurgitant murmur
    Rationale

    While blood cultures are essential for diagnosing and guiding treatment of infective endocarditis, visualization of vegetations on echocardiogram (especially transesophageal) is the most definitive diagnostic finding for valvular involvement. It confirms the presence of infected masses on the valve. New murmur and elevated troponins are supportive but not definitive.

  5. 5Cardiomyopathy

    A client with cardiomyopathy and orthopnea reports being most comfortable sleeping in a recliner with three pillows. Which nursing intervention best addresses this client need?

    • Encourage the client to lie flat in bed to improve oxygenation
    • Provide the client with a hospital bed that can be positioned at 45 degrees — correct
    • Administer a sleeping medication to help the client rest
    • Instruct the client to limit fluid intake after 6 PM
    Rationale

    Orthopnea (dyspnea when lying flat) is common in heart failure due to increased venous return to the failing heart. The client finds comfort in semi-upright positioning. A hospital bed that can be positioned at 45 degrees (or higher) allows the client to sleep in a semi-Fowler's position, which reduces orthopnea symptoms. This is a more sustainable solution than using multiple pillows or recliner chairs at home.

  6. 6Venous Thromboembolism

    A client presents with swelling, erythema, and tenderness along a superficial vein. On assessment, the nurse palpates a firm, cord-like vein. The client has no respiratory symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    • Deep vein thrombosis
    • Superficial thrombophlebitis — correct
    • Pulmonary embolism
    • Cellulitis
    Rationale

    Superficial thrombophlebitis presents with inflammation of a superficial vein, causing pain, erythema, swelling, and a palpable cord-like vein. Unlike DVT, it typically does not cause significant swelling of the entire limb and is not associated with respiratory symptoms. The absence of respiratory symptoms also rules out PE.

  7. 7CABG & Cardiac Surgery

    A client is scheduled for off-pump coronary artery bypass (OPCAB) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the procedure?

    • The surgery will be done while my heart is beating — correct
    • I will be on a heart-lung machine during the surgery
    • This procedure requires a longer hospital stay
    • I will have a higher risk of stroke with this procedure
    Rationale

    Off-pump CABG (OPCAB) is performed on a beating heart using a stabilizer device, avoiding cardiopulmonary bypass. Benefits include reduced risk of stroke, decreased renal dysfunction, shorter hospital stay, and faster recovery. The client should understand that no heart-lung machine will be used.

  8. 8Cardiac Assessment & Auscultation

    A client presents with a blood pressure of 158/98 mmHg. According to current ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines, how would this be classified?

    • Stage 1 hypertension
    • Stage 2 hypertension — correct
    • Normal
    • Prehypertension
    Rationale

    A blood pressure of 158/98 mmHg meets Stage 2 hypertension criteria by both measures: systolic 158 mmHg is ≥ 140, and diastolic 98 mmHg is ≥ 90, per JNC 8 and ACC/AHA 2017 guidelines. Stage 1 hypertension is 130–139/80–89 mmHg; Stage 2 is ≥ 140/≥ 90 mmHg. Both values in this reading exceed the Stage 2 threshold.

  9. 9Coronary Artery Disease

    Which modifiable risk factor is most strongly associated with the development of coronary artery disease?

    • Hypertension
    • Smoking — correct
    • Physical inactivity
    • Obesity
    Rationale

    The answer: B Think of it this way: of everything a person can change, smoking does the most damage to coronary arteries and stopping it produces the fastest benefit. Why B is right: smoking injures the endothelium directly, accelerates atherosclerotic plaque formation, raises LDL and lowers HDL, promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, and increases carbon monoxide so the blood carries less oxygen. It is the modifiable factor with the strongest association with developing coronary artery disease, and risk falls measurably within the first year after quitting. Why the others are wrong: - A: hypertension is a major modifiable risk factor and matters enormously, but its association with the development of coronary disease is not as strong as that of smoking. - C: physical inactivity contributes largely through its effects on weight, blood pressure, lipids and glucose tolerance. - D: obesity likewise acts mostly through the conditions it produces rather than directly on the arterial wall. Remember: smoking is the single most important modifiable coronary risk factor, and cessation is the highest-yield intervention available. Technical note: the non-modifiable factors — age, male sex, and family history of premature coronary disease — still carry substantial weight, which is why risk calculators combine both sets rather than treating modifiable factors alone.

  10. 10Pacemakers & Defibrillators

    A patient with an ICD is receiving amiodarone for ventricular tachycardia. The nurse notes the ICD is delivering frequent shocks. What should the nurse consider as the MOST likely cause?

    • The ICD battery is depleted
    • The amiodarone is causing oversensing by the ICD
    • The ICD leads are dislodged
    • The patient is experiencing recurrent ventricular tachycardia that may require medication adjustment or catheter ablation — correct
    Rationale

    While oversensing, lead issues, and battery depletion are possible causes of inappropriate shocks, the most likely cause in a patient on amiodarone who is still receiving frequent shocks is that the medication is not adequately suppressing the ventricular tachycardia. Amiodarone may also cause proarrhythmia (e.g., torsades de pointes) leading to appropriate shocks. The priority consideration is that the underlying arrhythmia is recurring and may need alternative therapy. The nurse should report this to the provider for further evaluation.

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